[KS] Variable Romanization of ?(?) in McCune-Reischauer

[Andrew]

I am probably wrong, but might it not be rather the opposite to Frank's
hypothesis: the dropping of initial ㄴ/ㄹ process was underway across the
whole language (at least in Seoul and the south), but that whereas for the
non-Sinic vocabulary there was nothing to obstruct the change, the
Sino-Korean vocabulary resisted precisely because of the remembered
association with Chinese pronunciation, and this was later frozen in a
state of transition by 20th century orthological conventions?

sincerely to all,
Andrew Logie
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